Which is more accurate for the phrase "FEAR NO EVIL" and why...
"non malum timere"
"non malum timete"
I thought that the second one would be because it is in the imperative, but on a webstei they have the phrase as the first one.
Quick question....
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Kynetus Valesius
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They are both bad if you ask me. But as for an explanation, I don't have the energy right now because I just finished a big test - had to write a five-hundred word essay in latin to get into this online course I'm taking at the Thules Academia. Here are some better possibilities
Nolite timere ullum malum
Timete nullum malum
Ne timeatis ullum malum
If I'm in error, I hope someone will correct me. Kynetus
Nolite timere ullum malum
Timete nullum malum
Ne timeatis ullum malum
If I'm in error, I hope someone will correct me. Kynetus
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OrthodoxBerean
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edonnelly
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"non" + present imperitive is not correct grammar.OrthodoxBerean wrote: Although, is there anyone that can tell me why the first two are not good?
We actually just had a discussion about the alternatives (use of noli(te) or prohibitive subjunctive) in this thread which quotes some formal rules.