I've learnt that the reflexive pronoun refers to the subject, but Cic. Ac. I.33:
spoliavit enim virtutem suo decore
Rackham (Loeb):
for he robbed virtue of her beauty
is this irregular, or is the rule erroneous; or I confused?
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by Lavrentivs » Thu Jun 21, 2012 7:47 pm
by adrianus » Tue Jun 26, 2012 2:58 am
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