Satis

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Dingbats
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Satis

Post by Dingbats »

I know that satis takes the genitive case when it modifies nouns, so "I have enough money" would be translated as Habeo satis pecuniae. But when it's modifying adjectives, do you still use the genitive? Would "You are big enough" be translated as Es satis magni? Or do you just not use satis together with adjectives?

Episcopus
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Post by Episcopus »

In the sentence "You are big enough" satis is an adverb, so it will leave 'satis magnus'. Keep an eye out for the partitive genitive, (pecuniae satis, tantum legum etc.) it's a lovely use. Also be careful not to use Swedish word order in Latin because 'habeo' at the beginning might emphasize the verb too much, and not really say what you mean. Apologies if you know this already :o

Dingbats
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Post by Dingbats »

Oh, I'll try thinking more about the word order in the future. I should have said Satis pecuniae habeo, of course. Could I also use Satis pecuniae mihi est?
Anyway, thanks for the help! :)

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benissimus
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Post by benissimus »

Dingbats wrote:Could I also use Satis pecuniae mihi est?
You certainly could say that.

It may have slipped your mind with this adverb, since it takes the genitive so often, but adverbs can usually modify adjectives (verbs, and other adverbs) without changing the word they modify - ergo, the adjective does not change. It is only when it is being used as a noun that it takes the genitive. Also, when satis is sometimes used in its most adverbial state, no genitive at all is used, e.g. satis me docuit "he taught me enough" (not "he taught enough of me"), satis pecuniam habemus... "we have enough money" (literally "we have money enough...").
flebile nescio quid queritur lyra, flebile lingua murmurat exanimis, respondent flebile ripae

Dingbats
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Post by Dingbats »

OK. Thanks! :D

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