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Postby aot » Mon Jun 07, 2004 5:46 am

I just restarted learning latin out of the Oxford Latin Course book and i ran across a sentence that confuses me.

filiam laudat Scintilla

I'm not sure if it should be translated as:

Scintilla praises her daughter.


Scintilla praises a/the daughter.

in the context it seems like it would be her daughter but wouldn't that be differenet?

thanks for any help.
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Postby Kasper » Mon Jun 07, 2004 6:51 am

In latin the possessive is often left out, they consider it obvious I suppose. Both translations are really correct, it sort of depends on the context.
“Cum ego verbo utar,” Humpty Dumpty dixit voce contempta, “indicat illud quod optem – nec plus nec minus.”
“Est tamen rogatio” dixit Alice, “an efficere verba tot res indicare possis.”
“Rogatio est, “Humpty Dumpty responsit, “quae fiat magister – id cunctum est.”
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Postby aot » Mon Jun 07, 2004 6:53 am

I thought that might be the case, thanks for the clarification.
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Postby Pete » Tue Jun 08, 2004 2:24 am

It happens in English too. If I had a son, I could say to him
Son, bring me a glass of water.

Notice that I could also specify whose son he is and say,

Bring me a glass of water, my son.

In both cases it is clear that he is my son.
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