Now that I compare it to Spanish, I can understand the phrase in Latin, but I wouldn't imagine saying yo tenga (subjunctive) at the end of that phrase.
Isn't scire an infinitive, though?
Interesting question. Thanks!
adrianus wrote:Indirect discourse (or infinitive) clauses, have subjunctive subordinate clauses.
Clausulae orationibus obliquis subordinatae subjunctivo modo sunt.
"scitis qualem sollicitudinem habeo pro vobis" is fine pre-classically // bonum erat ante classicum aevum http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0059%3Aentry%3Dscio sectio I.g
jamesbath wrote:volo enim vos scire qualem sollicitudinem habeam pro vobis
I see scire as an infinitive "to know". Volo enim scire "for I want you to know"
jamesbath wrote:But I am still thrashing around in a great ocean of ignorance as far as languages go. Helplessly drowning most of the time. And maybe this time, too. Take everything I say with a truckload of salt.
Your post spurs me to take a look at the Spanish verbs I downloaded to my Kindle. Thanks.
jaihare wrote:Is this an accurate assessment of the situation? That we can replace vos with any accusative and get the same meaning from the construction?
jaihare wrote: So, I think you meant volō vos scīre means "I want you to know."
Users browsing this forum: Google [Bot], Yahoo [Bot] and 65 guests