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psalms

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psalms

Postby little flower » Wed Jun 01, 2011 8:36 pm

hi all at Textkit
Its good to me a Member finally. A quck question from psalm 2 (vulgate ed)
Postulo a me et dabo tibi gentes hereditatem tuam et possessionem tuam terminos terrae. (ver 8)

Ask of me and i shall give you the gentiles for thy inheritance and the ends of the earth for thy possession.
Why is hereditatem and possessionem acc and not dat.?
Thanks again
Little flower.
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little flower
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Re: psalms

Postby adrianus » Thu Jun 02, 2011 4:32 pm

Salve floscule sodalis
little flower wrote:...Postulo a me et dabo tibi gentes hereditatem tuam et possessionem tuam terminos terrae. (ver 8)

Ask of me and i shall give you the gentiles for thy inheritance and the ends of the earth for thy possession.
Why is hereditatem and possessionem acc and not dat.?

The English is loose. Or rather, "as" as well as "for" express the same thing, for terms in apposition with "terminos" and "gentiles" in the accusative.
Laxa translatio. Immò, anglicè et "as" et "for" idem exprimit pro collocationibus cum "terminos" "gentiles" nominibus accusativo casu in appositione.

In my humble opinion:
Tuâ veniâ, anglicè sic:

"Postula a me et dabo tibi gentes hereditatem tuam et possessionem tuam terminos terrae."
"Ask of [/from] me and I will give you the Gentiles as [hîc accusativus casus sequitur] your inheritance and the ends of the Earth as your possession." [usage is close to legal terminology, I think // simile est legalis usûs, nisi fallor]
I'm writing in Latin hoping for correction, and not because I'm confident in how I express myself. Latinè scribo ut ab omnibus corrigar, non quod confidenter me exprimam.
adrianus
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Re: psalms

Postby little flower » Thu Jun 02, 2011 8:56 pm

Thanks Adrianus
Another question from psalm 1
Sed tamquam pulvis quem proicit ventus a facie terrae (ver 4)

Like the the dust which the wind driveth from the face of the earth.
What does 'quem' agree with.?
Thanks again
Little flower.
phpbb
little flower
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Re: psalms

Postby adrianus » Thu Jun 02, 2011 9:45 pm

Quem pronomen pro pulvere ponitur cum quo substantivo antecendente in tribus concordat: in personâ*, genere et numero, non autem in casu qui de clausulâ in quâ stat dependet, quâ ratione accusativo casu hîc est "quem" pronomen ut istius versûs Psalmi objectum.

The pronoun "quem" stands for "pulvis" and agrees with it (the antecedent) in three things: in person*, gender and number, but not in case which is determined by the clause it stands in, and it's the object of the clause in your Psalm sentence.

*I spend a lot of time with 15th/16th-century grammars. Modern grammars would say just gender and number and not throw in "person".
*Multum tempus in grammaticis aevi renascentiae perlegendis impendo. De hâc re personae mentionem omittunt grammaticae modernae.
I'm writing in Latin hoping for correction, and not because I'm confident in how I express myself. Latinè scribo ut ab omnibus corrigar, non quod confidenter me exprimam.
adrianus
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Re: psalms

Postby little flower » Sat Jun 04, 2011 8:04 pm

try psalm 2 ver 6 adrian
Ego autem constitutus sum rex ab eo super siom montem sanctum eius

But i am appointed king by him over Sion his holy mountain.
Why is 'appointed' pefect passive.?
Thanks
Little flower.
phpbb
little flower
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Location: aberdeen, Scotland

Re: psalms

Postby adrianus » Sat Jun 04, 2011 10:04 pm

Et adjectivum et pars temporis praeteriti perfecti passivae vocae est constitutus -a -um; ergo per praesens aut praeteritum tempus in sermones anglicos vertere potes, ut puto.

Since constitutus is an adjective as well as part of the past perfect passive, you can say "I am appointed" as well as "I was appointed", I think.
I'm writing in Latin hoping for correction, and not because I'm confident in how I express myself. Latinè scribo ut ab omnibus corrigar, non quod confidenter me exprimam.
adrianus
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Posts: 3270
Joined: Sun Sep 10, 2006 9:45 pm


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