I have a question about the following sentence:
Iūlius est dominus pecūniōsus, quī magnam vīllam habet et magnam familiam, id est multōs servōs.
My translation is as follows:
Julius is a rich lord, who has a large estate and large family, that is many slaves.
My understanding so far is limited, but I believe that 'id' can be used as both 'it' and a weak 'that'. Still, it seems my translation is lacking, or not quite there. Is "id est multōs servōs" a subclause relating to 'magnam familiam' as I believe? 'Id' is neuter, 'familiam' is feminine. I kinda think that for my translation to be correct, they'd have to agree with each other. Or, is 'id est' being idiomatically used in a way I am not catching?
Any enlightenment on this is appreciated.
On a more puerile note, a few sentences later comes this: Cornēlius equum suum amat. ...heh.