et memini hoc, et unde loqui didiceram, post adverti.
The text I have provided is that of M. Skutella from the most recent Teubner. In the app. crit "didicerim" is given as a reading that existed in another group of MSS. What I don't understand is why "didiceram" is a better reading than "didicerim." I take the "unde" clause as an indirect question governed by "adverti," so the subjunctive seems necessary to me. Were there certain cases in late Latin where the indicative was used in indirect questions rather than the subjunctive? I know in pre-classical Latin the indicative was occasionally used to indicate, as Woodcock puts it, "indirect questions of fact," but I don't know whether anything analogous existed in late Latin.
