Bert wrote:Why would the usage of verb change from a more regular form to an irregular one, even more puzzeling considering that the later form is also ambiguous.
I have a few quick comments. First, at the same time a language is simplifying in some areas, it may become more complex in others. Very small, very common words (be, say, do) tend to retain or even emphasize irregularities the most.
According to my NT
Analytical Greek Lexicon, the only forms of this verb to occur at all are
[face=spionic]fhmi/[/face],
[face=spionic]fhsi[/face] (3sg.),
[face=spionic]fasi/[/face] (3pl), and the 3.sg. imperfect,
[face=spionic]e)/fh[/face]. However, there are forms of
[face=spionic]ei)=pon[/face] available for an aorist when it is really necessary to be clear, and
[face=spionic]e)/legon[/face] for imperfect.
Also, I tried to think of a situation - outside an imperative - where the aorist is really vitally different from the imperfect with "to say". I cannot.