qustion about Matt 13:28 and 39
Posted: Fri Oct 19, 2007 3:15 pm
I’m still very green on Greek ( I’m only on chapter 11 in BBG), so please pardon me if this is an elementary question. I would like for some of you guys to help me understand the translation of a passage. It is Matt 13:28 and 13:39.
In v 28 we see the phrase
Εχθ?ος ανθ?ωπος
I’m understanding this to mean the “person who was the enemy?. In the explanation of the parable, in v 39 we see…..
Εχθ?ος....εστιν ο διαβολος
Meaning the enemy was the devil. What I’m having a hard time understanding is why ανθ?ωπος was used. It seem to me to apply some kind of “humanness? to the “enemy?. I don’t understand the significance of that phrasing given the explanation in v 39. How do you guys/gals understand this? If you could keep your explanations simple enough so that I can understand them (still very green on greek) I would be most appreciative.
In v 28 we see the phrase
Εχθ?ος ανθ?ωπος
I’m understanding this to mean the “person who was the enemy?. In the explanation of the parable, in v 39 we see…..
Εχθ?ος....εστιν ο διαβολος
Meaning the enemy was the devil. What I’m having a hard time understanding is why ανθ?ωπος was used. It seem to me to apply some kind of “humanness? to the “enemy?. I don’t understand the significance of that phrasing given the explanation in v 39. How do you guys/gals understand this? If you could keep your explanations simple enough so that I can understand them (still very green on greek) I would be most appreciative.