qustion about Matt 13:28 and 39

[joseph47parker]

I’m still very green on Greek ( I’m only on chapter 11 in BBG), so please pardon me if this is an elementary question. I would like for some of you guys to help me understand the translation of a passage. It is Matt 13:28 and 13:39.

In v 28 we see the phrase

ΕχθÏ￾ος ανθÏ￾ωπος

I’m understanding this to mean the “person who was the enemyâ€￾. In the explanation of the parable, in v 39 we see…..


ΕχθÏ￾ος....εστιν ο διαβολος

Meaning the enemy was the devil. What I’m having a hard time understanding is why ανθÏ￾ωπος was used. It seem to me to apply some kind of “humannessâ€￾ to the “enemyâ€￾. I don’t understand the significance of that phrasing given the explanation in v 39. How do you guys/gals understand this? If you could keep your explanations simple enough so that I can understand them (still very green on greek) I would be most appreciative.

[vir litterarum]

the "anthrwpos" only refers to the parable itself, not the explanation thereof. The parable wouldn't make sense if it were the devil himself who planted tares within the wheat, so Jesus uses the concrete, indefinite enemy "hostile man." The verse is not at all intended to be sympathetic to the devil or to impart to him human qualities; rather, the "hostile man" is merely a concrete example of the malign influence of the devil.

[joseph47parker]

Great. Thanks. I wasn't trying to be a literalist, but I just didn't know if it was more significant. I guess it seems pretty obvious now.