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by vir litterarum » Fri Jun 15, 2007 4:41 pm
I was reading in Matthew chapter 6:1 and saw that Jesus uses an accusative + infinitive in an indirect command after prosecho. I could not find this construction after this verb in Liddell and Scott and was wondering whether anyone had seen it before?
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vir litterarum
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by Talmid » Fri Jun 22, 2007 4:43 am
Vir -
I'm away from my library right now, so I can't look up any information in my resources to help. Hopefully later I'll check BDAG to give an answer.
Just curious though, why are you wondering about this matter?
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Talmid
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by annis » Fri Jun 22, 2007 12:57 pm
Talmid wrote:Just curious though, why are you wondering about this matter?
Surely someone possessing a blog with the word "philology" in the title can understand the philological urge to catalog all corners of Greek syntax for oneself.
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annis
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by Talmid » Fri Jun 22, 2007 4:46 pm
Surely someone possessing a blog with the word "philology" in the title can understand the philological urge to catalog all corners of Greek syntax for oneself.
Annis -
Perhaps we should give an official name to this syndrome. May I propose "Philologist's Curiosity Syndrome" or "PCS" for short?
Thanks for the reminder!
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by vir litterarum » Tue Jul 31, 2007 10:26 pm
Albeit I endeavor to understand every construction when reading Ancient Greek, I am particularly weary of misinterpretation when reading the New Testament, so I just wanted to verify I was translating the verb correctly
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