διαπαρατριβή vs. παραδιατριβή 1 Tim.6:5
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διαπαρατριβή vs. παραδιατριβή 1 Tim.6:5
What's the story with διαπαρατριβή vs. παραδιατριβή?
Are they the same word in different forms or different word?
Was it simply a transcription error on Stephanus (1550)'s part?
Was Stephanus a classical scholar, with more freedom to emmend the text, or was he part or a precursor to the modern quest for the original text?
Is there validity in analysing the mechamical morphology as δια "constant, over a long time" added to παρατριβή "friction" and παρα "wrongly" διατριβή "use of time for an activity"?
Are they the same word in different forms or different word?
Was it simply a transcription error on Stephanus (1550)'s part?
Was Stephanus a classical scholar, with more freedom to emmend the text, or was he part or a precursor to the modern quest for the original text?
Is there validity in analysing the mechamical morphology as δια "constant, over a long time" added to παρατριβή "friction" and παρα "wrongly" διατριβή "use of time for an activity"?
Last edited by ἑκηβόλος on Sun Aug 05, 2018 4:47 pm, edited 1 time in total.
τί δὲ ἀγαθὸν τῇ πομφόλυγι συνεστώσῃ ἢ κακὸν διαλυθείσῃ;
- Barry Hofstetter
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Re: διαπαρατριβή vs. παραφιατριβή 1 Tim.6:5
The vast majority of manuscripts have διαπαρατριβαί.
I'm guessing that Erasmus used one of the minuscules mentioned above for 1 Timothy.
Moulton, J. H., & Milligan, G. (1930). The vocabulary of the Greek Testament (p. 482). London: Hodder and Stoughton.M&M wrote:παραδιατριβή
Παραδιατριβαί has only the support of a few minuscule MSS. in 1 Tim 6:5. The true reading διαπαρατριβαί is understood by Field (Notes, p. 211) in the sense of “mutual irritations”: cf. for the sense of reciprocity the simple compd. in Polyb. ii. 36. 5 τὰ μὲν οὖν κατὰ Καρχηδονίους καὶ Ῥωμαίους ἐν ὑποψίαις ἦν πρὸς ἀλλήλους καὶ παρατριβαῖς (cited by Lock ICC ad 1 Tim l.c.).
I'm guessing that Erasmus used one of the minuscules mentioned above for 1 Timothy.
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Cuncta mortalia incerta...
Cuncta mortalia incerta...
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Re: διαπαρατριβή vs. παραφιατριβή 1 Tim.6:5
Readings from the TR are generally ignored in contemporary biblical studies. I found one reference[1] to this in a 2016 dissertation University of Edinburgh. There was no discussion of the variant but it was included in the apparatus. In the second half of the 19th century the TR was a hot topic. Henry Alford has this to say:
page 466,
The Text of the Pauline Epistles and Hebrews in Clement of Alexandria
By Maegan C.M. Gilliland
Thesis Submitted for the degree of PhD at the
University of Edinburgh School of Divinity 2016
[1] διαπαρατριβαι rell ] διατριβαι K; παραδιατριβαι 2423incessant quarrels (δια- gives the sense of continuance; παρατριβή, primarily ‘friction,’ is found in later writers in the sense of irritating provocation, or hostile collision: so Polyb. ii. 36. 5, τὰ μὲν οὖν κατὰ Καρχηδονίους καὶ Ῥωμαίους ἀπὸ τούτων ἤδη τῶν καιρῶν ἐν ὑποψίαις ἦν πρὸς ἀλλήλους καὶ παρατριβαῖς:—xxiii. 10. 4, διὰ τὴν πρὸς τὸν Φιλοποίμενα παρατριβήν: see also iv. 21. 5; xxi. 13. 5; xxiv. 3. 4. According to the other reading, παρά would give the sense of useless, vain, perverse, and διατριβή would be disputation, thus giving the sense ‘perverse disputing,’ as E. V. Chrys., Œc., Thdrt., explain our word ἀπὸ μεταφορᾶς τῶν ψωραλέων προβάτων (Œc.): and Chrys. says, καθάπερ τὰ ψωραλέα τῶν προβάτων παρατριβόμενα νόσου καὶ τὰ ὑγιαίνοντα ἐμπίπλησιν, οὕτω καὶ οὗτοι οἱ πονηροὶ ἄνδρες) of men depraved in mind (reff.; and see Ellic. on the psychology and construction) and destitute of the truth, who suppose that godliness is gain (lit., ‘a gainful trade,’ as Conyb.: see reff.:—and therefore do not teach contentment and acquiescence in God’s providence, as in ver. 6: but strive to make men discontented, and persuade them to use religion as a means of worldly bettering themselves).
page 466,
The Text of the Pauline Epistles and Hebrews in Clement of Alexandria
By Maegan C.M. Gilliland
Thesis Submitted for the degree of PhD at the
University of Edinburgh School of Divinity 2016
C. Stirling Bartholomew
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Re: διαπαρατριβή vs. παραδιατριβή 1 Tim.6:5
Here is Evelyn S. Shuckburgh's 1889 translation from Perseus:
The "meaning" of this word διαπαρατριβαί is certainly a lot more speculative than most.
[I guess that somewhere in the transmission from translator's intent to the digital presentation of that translation that we now have, the "n" in "suspicions" was inverted.]2.36.5 wrote: τὰ μὲν οὖν κατὰ Καρχηδονίους καὶ Ῥωμαίους ἀπὸ τούτων ἤδη τῶν καιρῶν ἐν ὑποψίαις ἦν πρὸς ἀλλήλους καὶ παρατριβαῖς.
From that time forth there were constant suspicious and causes of offence arising between the Carthaginians and Romans.
[The quote supplied from Henry Alford is referenced differently by 1 book in Perseus, viz. xxiii for 22. The English translation given on Perseus for chapter 10 of book 22 is actually for chapter 7, but a correct translation is available at Penelope, and included in this post.]22.10.4 wrote:ὁ δὲ Διοφάνης ὁ Μεγαλοπολίτης, ἄνθρωπος στρατιωτικώτερος ἢ πολιτικώτερος, ἀναστὰς οὐχ οἷον ἀπελογήθη τι περὶ τῶν Ἀχαιῶν, ἀλλὰ καὶ προσυπέδειξε τῷ Καικιλίῳ διὰ τὴν πρὸς τὸν Φιλοποίμενα παρατριβὴν ἕτερον ἔγκλημα κατὰ τῶν Ἀχαιῶν.
Diophanes of Megalopolis, who was more of a soldier than a politician, now got up, and not only did not offer any defence of the Achaeans, but, owing to his strained relations with Philopoemen, suggested to Caecilius another charge he might bring against the League.
The "meaning" of this word διαπαρατριβαί is certainly a lot more speculative than most.
τί δὲ ἀγαθὸν τῇ πομφόλυγι συνεστώσῃ ἢ κακὸν διαλυθείσῃ;
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Re: διαπαρατριβή vs. παραδιατριβή 1 Tim.6:5
The patristic evidence for διαπαρατριβαί is fairly substantial, most of it quoting 1Tim.6:5.ἑκηβόλος wrote: The "meaning" of this word διαπαρατριβαί is certainly a lot more speculative than most.
Bauer (Danker 3rd ed.)
that which is characterized by constant argumentativeness and therefore irritating, wrangling pl. frictional wranglings
Lampe
rubbing up against, friction
The evidence from the surrounding context in 1Tim 6 and the patristic sources looks substantial if you compare lexical evidence used for many hapaxlegomona in the Hebrew Bible.
There are about 1,500 of these in the Old Testament; but only 400 are, strictly, "hapax legomena"; i.e., are either absolutely new coinages of roots, or can not be derived in their formation or in their specific meaning from other occurring stems. JewishEncyclopedia.com
C. Stirling Bartholomew
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Re: διαπαρατριβή vs. παραδιατριβή 1 Tim.6:5
Clement of Alexandria has a diatribe about evil sophistry in which he cites 1 Tim.6:5. If you read the whole chapter you will get lots of useful context for determining the meaning of the word διαπαρατριβαὶ. English version: http://www.orthodoxebooks.org/sites/def ... andria.pdf
Greek French diglot: http://remacle.org/bloodwolf/eglise/cle ... ates11.htm
Greek French diglot: http://remacle.org/bloodwolf/eglise/cle ... ates11.htm
Clemens Alexandrinus Stromata
Book 1, chapter 8
Τὸν αὐτὸν γὰρ τρόπον καὶ τῆς σοφιστικῆς ἀρχὴ μὲν τὸ φαινόμενον, ἔργον δὲ διττόν, τὸ μὲν ἐκ ῥητορικῆς διεξοδικὸν φαινομένον, τὸ δὲ ἐκ διαλεκτικῆς ἐρωτητικόν, τέλος δὲ αὐτῆς ἡ ἔκπληξις. ἥ τε αὖ θρυλουμένη κατὰ τὰς διατριβὰς διαλεκτικὴ γύμνασμα φιλοσόφου περὶ τὸ ἔνδοξον δείκνυται ἀντιλογικῆς ἕνεκεν δυνάμεως· οὐδαμοῦ δ´ ἐν τούτοις ἡ ἀλήθεια. Εἰκότως τοίνυν ὁ γενναῖος ἀπόστολος, ἐκφαυλίζων τὰς περιττὰς ταύτας τῶν λέξεων τέχνας,
« Εἴ τις μὴ προσέρχεται ὑγιαίνουσι λόγοις» φησί, «διδασκαλίᾳ δέ τινι τετύφωται μηδὲν ἐπιστάμενος, ἀλλὰ νοσῶν περὶ ζητήσεις καὶ λογομαχίας, ἐξ ὧν γίνεται ἔρις, φθόνος, βλασφημία, ὑπόνοιαι πονηραί, διαπαρατριβαὶ διεφθαρμένων ἀνθρώπων τὸν νοῦν καὶ ἀπεστερημένων τῆς ἀληθείας.»
Ὁρᾷς ὅπως πρὸς αὐτοὺς κεκίνηται, νόσον ὀνομάζων τὴν λογικὴν τέχνην αὐτῶν, ἐφ´ ᾗ σεμνύνονται οἷς φίλη ἡ στωμύλος αὕτη κακοτεχνία, εἴτε Ἕλληνες εἶεν εἴτε καὶ βάρβαροι σοφισταί. Παγκάλως οὖν ὁ τραγικὸς Εὐριπίδης ἐν ταῖς Φοινίσσαις λέγει·
C. Stirling Bartholomew
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Re: διαπαρατριβή vs. παραδιατριβή 1 Tim.6:5
That is quite a technical sense that he is using. I wonder if that is the limit of the word's meaning in all contexts, or whether the authour is using a word with a general meaning in a technical sense in this diatribe?C. S. Bartholomew wrote:Clement of Alexandria has a diatribe about evil sophistry in which he cites 1 Tim.6:5. If you read the whole chapter you will get lots of useful context for determining the meaning of the word διαπαρατριβαὶ.
τί δὲ ἀγαθὸν τῇ πομφόλυγι συνεστώσῃ ἢ κακὸν διαλυθείσῃ;
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Re: διαπαρατριβή vs. παραδιατριβή 1 Tim.6:5
δι’ ἃ παρατριβαί
“One might get one’s Greek from the very lips of Homer and Plato." "In which case they would certainly plough you for the Little-go. The German scholars have improved Greek so much.”
Joel Eidsath -- jeidsath@gmail.com
Joel Eidsath -- jeidsath@gmail.com
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Re: διαπαρατριβή vs. παραδιατριβή 1 Tim.6:5
With an understood γίνονται?jeidsath wrote:δι’ ἃ παρατριβαί
τί δὲ ἀγαθὸν τῇ πομφόλυγι συνεστώσῃ ἢ κακὸν διαλυθείσῃ;
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Re: διαπαρατριβή vs. παραδιατριβή 1 Tim.6:5
Yes, it would have to be. Matthäi mentions that he saw it once with this accentuation, and he would prefer it, but it had no other support. (At least that’s what I think he said. His note is in Latin, which I can’t read well. I’ll post it later.). I like διαπαρατριβαί myself.
EDIT:
Christian Friedrich von Matthäi's Novum Testamentum Graece.
EDIT:
Christian Friedrich von Matthäi's Novum Testamentum Graece.
“One might get one’s Greek from the very lips of Homer and Plato." "In which case they would certainly plough you for the Little-go. The German scholars have improved Greek so much.”
Joel Eidsath -- jeidsath@gmail.com
Joel Eidsath -- jeidsath@gmail.com