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ἐπερίσσευσεν - Why is the augment before the preposition?

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ἐπερίσσευσεν - Why is the augment before the preposition?

Postby ἑκηβόλος » Sat Jul 21, 2018 10:12 am

Why is the syllabic augment of ἐπερίσσευσεν the aorist indicative of περισσεύειν placed before the preposition?

Arising from reading:
Romans 3:7 wrote:Εἰ γὰρ ἡ ἀλήθεια τοῦ θεοῦ ἐν τῷ ἐμῷ ψεύσματι ἐπερίσσευσεν εἰς τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, τί ἔτι κἀγὼ ὡς ἁμαρτωλὸς κρίνομαι;
I sang of the dancing stars,
I sang of the daedal Earth,
And of Heaven -- and the giant wars,
And Love, and Death, and Birth, --
(Shelley, Hymn of Pan)
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Re: ἐπερίσσευσεν - Why is the augment before the preposition

Postby Barry Hofstetter » Sat Jul 21, 2018 11:41 am

It was not perceived to be a compound:

περισσεύω, Att. περιττεύω, impf. ἐπερίσσευον (περιέσσευον is condemned by Phryn.20), (περισσός)

Liddell, H. G., Scott, R., Jones, H. S., & McKenzie, R. (1996). A Greek-English lexicon (p. 1387). Oxford: Clarendon Press.

If condemned by the Atticists, that means somebody was seeing it as the equivalent of περι + σσευω, apparently as you are thinking of it, and Phrynichus was saying, "no, not the case."

However, even with prepositional compounds, later Greek sometimes augments before the preposition or even does a double augment. This is frequent enough in the LXX to be annoying.
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
The Jack M. Barrack Hebrew Academy
καὶ σὺ τὸ σὸν ποιήσεις κἀγὼ τὸ ἐμόν. ἆρον τὸ σὸν καὶ ὕπαγε.
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Re: ἐπερίσσευσεν - Why is the augment before the preposition

Postby ἑκηβόλος » Sun Jul 22, 2018 11:41 am

None of the major early NT manuscripts use the condemned περιέσσευον form in any in any of Jn.6:13, Ac.16:5, Rm.3:7, 5:15, 2Co.8:2, or Eph.1:8.

Is palatal σσ in this word the same as the palatal in the ξ of πέριξ?
I sang of the dancing stars,
I sang of the daedal Earth,
And of Heaven -- and the giant wars,
And Love, and Death, and Birth, --
(Shelley, Hymn of Pan)
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Re: ἐπερίσσευσεν - Why is the augment before the preposition

Postby Barry Hofstetter » Sun Jul 22, 2018 12:40 pm

ἑκηβόλος wrote:None of the major early NT manuscripts use the condemned περιέσσευον form in any in any of Jn.6:13, Ac.16:5, Rm.3:7, 5:15, 2Co.8:2, or Eph.1:8.

Is palatal σσ in this word the same as the palatal in the ξ of πέριξ?


Right, nobody said that anybody used the "condemned form" in any NT text, the NT is using the standard Koine form. -ττ- is simply Attic for -σσ-.
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
The Jack M. Barrack Hebrew Academy
καὶ σὺ τὸ σὸν ποιήσεις κἀγὼ τὸ ἐμόν. ἆρον τὸ σὸν καὶ ὕπαγε.
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