joseph47parker wrote:I am just starting learing Koine Greek. Currently on chapter 10 of BBG, so I got a long way to go. Anyway, I have a question about etymology....I think. Let me make give this example and then my question will be clear I hope.
In Romans 1:16 the NIV states
I am not ashamed of the gospel, because it is the power of Godâ€¦.
In the TEV it states
I have complete confidence in the gospel; it is God's power
I heard a sermon on this verse that stated the Greek term epascunmai (sorry I couldn't get the greek font to work here) means â€œashamedâ€ but also carries with it a meaning of being â€œdisappointedâ€ and that is why the TEV has translated it as having â€œcompete confidenceâ€.
So, I start looking in my handy dandy Lexicon (Iâ€™m using Trenchardâ€™s Concise Dicty of NT Greek) and the definition was â€œashamedâ€ no more. So I look on some software Lexicons and they also ONLY have â€œashamedâ€ for the definition. (Thayerâ€™s, Louw and Nida, Vineâ€™s expository of NT words, Strongâ€™s)
So where did this translation of â€œcomplete confidenceâ€ come from. Is this something that I would get from a better lexicon? A NT Greek commentary?
The problem with Trenchard's is that it is not meant to be used as a lexicon but as a lexical aid. It lists words in cognate groups to help you see the connection between one and the other. It is a great help with memorizing. I don't have Louw and Nida and I don't have Thayer's anymore. These are lexicons so they are more likely to give a definition in addition to a word that could
be used as a translation. I am quite sure that both of them have more than just "ashamed" (don't they?)
I looked it up in BDAG and it defines this word as; "to experience a painful feeling or sense of loss of status because of some particular eventor activity be ashamed
" Based on this I would think that being being disappointed is close but maybe not strong enough. Î±á¼°ÏƒÏ‡á½»Î½Î· means; shame done to someone, dishonour, shame for an ill deed.
In Homer Î±á¼¶ÏƒÏ‡Î¿Ï‚ is; shame, disgrace, a cause of shame or disgrace. So it seems that this word has not changed much from Homer to the time of the beginning of the New Testament. The translation â€œcomplete confidenceâ€ is an attempt to bring out the meaning in better English. Whether or not this was successful is for you to decide.
joseph47parker wrote:Is this an etymology question
No. Etymology studies the way a word has developed. For instance from (several) base form(s) to its present form. An example would be dynamite comes from the Greek word Î´á½»Î½Î±Î¼Î¹Ï‚ (from this same text.) I recently heard a sermon where the minister said that Rom 1:16 says that the gospel is the dynamite of God
. Utter nonsense. He was using the etymology of dynamite and worked backward to explain the word Î´á½»Î½Î±Î¼Î¹Ï‚. I am sure that the apostle Paul did not have dynamite in mind when he wrote that the gospel is the power of God unto salvation. If dynamite was it, what would it do? Blow open the gates of heaven? Or blow us into heaven? (I don't mean this as blasphemy. I'm just a little frustrated with someone using his (lack of ) knowledge of Greek to come up with nonsense like that.)
joseph47parker wrote: Is etymology the same as morphologyâ€¦.IOWâ€¦.will a good morphology book cover the etymology of greek words?
No. Two different animals. Morphology deals with the FORM of words rather than the HISTORY of words. You are now in chapter 10 of BBG.
In it you will learn why the word Ïƒá½±ÏÎ¾ is written with a Î¾ even though the stem is ÏƒÎ±ÏÎº- and the case ending is Sigma. That is morphology.