COMPARING GREEK LXX WITH HEBREW OT
Posted: Sat Feb 03, 2007 8:16 pm
Greetings! My name is Avraham. I am fairly new here. I currently know Hebrew. I'd say enough to where I maybe need to look up 2 words at the most per chapter. So I read fairly well. I am currently studying Arabic and NT Greek. I am close to finishing with that. However, Greek is way harder than Hebrew! Like English. My goal is to master it. Along with that the Greek of the Septuagint (I understand it is a little more complex, at least in vocabulary?). I am also soon going to take up Latin(thanks to this website I now have the means!!!), and on top of that, Classical Greek. I also purchase most of my books from Stuttgart, Germany. Like, the leading Bible authority in the world! They have a new English webpage. Check it out! http://www.scholarly-bibles.com/en/ Well, since I know Hebrew, I am fascinated with it's comparison with the septuagint. I understand they both help explain the other. I've read all the postings here, and studied about it elsewhere. I will also point out for refference, I am a former Jew, turned disciple of Yeshua(Jesus, Christian, whatever you want to call it). I am not part of a denomination, however. I do have some strong personal beliefs, yet in my opinions I try to stay open-minded in searching for the truth. My goal here is not religious, but grammatical. What I do with what I learn here I will do on my own later. I won't force my beliefs on anyone Now. I have some questions. I hope they are both fun and challeninging. Here goes:
1. In the Hebrew OT, the word for "slave" is "עֶבֶד"(eved). Now we all hear stories of the Hebrew "slaves" in Egypt. Stories that conjur up images of beating, raping, and just utter terror. However, a rabbi of mine one taught me that it was not so. The Hebrews live almost the best they ever did in their history. Tons of food, clothing, housing, and for the most part, total freedoms. Outside of perhaps worshiping their God, or leaving for vacations to Hawai'i This shocked me at first. But Hebrew is not as specific as English or Greek. Each word could have at least 3 different definitions in English. עֶבֶד also means "servant". In our sense, the fact that I do not own my own business, makes me an עֶבֶד. A slave? Maybe to the system. But that's not colloquial English So. What does it say in the LXX? And what does it mean exactly? Not just literally, but idiomatically, et cetera?
2. Next, the question of the "virgin birth" in Isaiah's prophecy. Let me remind people, I am not implying anything here. I can go either way. I am ASKing for help. Not trying to make a point. Give me a few months for that Well, in Isaiah 7:14, it says: "יד לָכֵן יִתֵּן ?ֲדֹנָי הוּ?, לָכֶ?-- הִנֵּה הָעַלְמָה הָרָה וְיֹלֶדֶת בֵּן, וְקָרָ?ת ש?ְמוֹ, עִמָּנוּ ?ֵל ?וֹת:." It uses "עַלְמָה" (almah). Protestants and Catholics alike(I think Eastern Orthodox too) translate it as "virgin". Jews translate it as "young woman of marrying age"(can never put Hebrew into one word ) The say that if it were virgin "בְּתוּלָה"(b'tulah) would be used instead. Well the root of "בְּתוּלָה" does literally mean virgin. While the root of "עַלְמָה" does mean "the age desirous of marriage". "עַלְמָה" alone can mean "maiden". However it also means virgin, or unmarried woman, id est, virgin. A Russian Orthodox Monk/Priest friend of mine told me that in the Jews translating the LXX from Hebrew to Greek, used the literal Greek word for virgin, and not maiden. Thus clarifying all arguments centuries before the birth of Jesus. Is this true? What is your reading of it in the LXX Greek?
3. Lastly, I ask about the flood story. Many people who maintain the Bible to be nothing but fallacies state that the flood story if preposterous. (I don't care if you are Christian or not. Just at least accept that the Bible is really cool mythology, not lies ) Well, there is new evidence that that there was a huge flood in the region around the Medditerranian and Black Seas. National Geographic even did a few specials on it recently. It is not only in the culture and religions of all the peoples in those areas, but they also have extensive evidence pertaining to it. However, the evidence is not global. This supported suspicions I had before. In Hebrew, when the flood was on the "world", the word used is "?ָרֶץ" (eretz), and not what I would think "עֹלָ?" (olam) or "תֵּבֵל" (teiveil). "עֹלָ?" means "world, universe, eternity". "תֵּבֵל" means "the Earth, the globe, or moist". Whereas the word used, "?ָרֶץ" means "earth" but also means "land, country, area, or hard". Now in my knowledge of Hebrew (not saying I'm a leading expert or anything) "?ָרֶץ" is more cannoted to a smaller area. As "country" or "region". It is seldom used for "whole planet". "עֹלָ?" is popular. So what say you?
I hope these questions are not too hard for any of you. Or too dumb and simple. I again point out that I am on a textual/ gramatical quest here. Not a religous one. So I am not implying anything, and am making every effort not to offend anyone. Thank you all for your time and consideration. Good day!
-Avraham
1. In the Hebrew OT, the word for "slave" is "עֶבֶד"(eved). Now we all hear stories of the Hebrew "slaves" in Egypt. Stories that conjur up images of beating, raping, and just utter terror. However, a rabbi of mine one taught me that it was not so. The Hebrews live almost the best they ever did in their history. Tons of food, clothing, housing, and for the most part, total freedoms. Outside of perhaps worshiping their God, or leaving for vacations to Hawai'i This shocked me at first. But Hebrew is not as specific as English or Greek. Each word could have at least 3 different definitions in English. עֶבֶד also means "servant". In our sense, the fact that I do not own my own business, makes me an עֶבֶד. A slave? Maybe to the system. But that's not colloquial English So. What does it say in the LXX? And what does it mean exactly? Not just literally, but idiomatically, et cetera?
2. Next, the question of the "virgin birth" in Isaiah's prophecy. Let me remind people, I am not implying anything here. I can go either way. I am ASKing for help. Not trying to make a point. Give me a few months for that Well, in Isaiah 7:14, it says: "יד לָכֵן יִתֵּן ?ֲדֹנָי הוּ?, לָכֶ?-- הִנֵּה הָעַלְמָה הָרָה וְיֹלֶדֶת בֵּן, וְקָרָ?ת ש?ְמוֹ, עִמָּנוּ ?ֵל ?וֹת:." It uses "עַלְמָה" (almah). Protestants and Catholics alike(I think Eastern Orthodox too) translate it as "virgin". Jews translate it as "young woman of marrying age"(can never put Hebrew into one word ) The say that if it were virgin "בְּתוּלָה"(b'tulah) would be used instead. Well the root of "בְּתוּלָה" does literally mean virgin. While the root of "עַלְמָה" does mean "the age desirous of marriage". "עַלְמָה" alone can mean "maiden". However it also means virgin, or unmarried woman, id est, virgin. A Russian Orthodox Monk/Priest friend of mine told me that in the Jews translating the LXX from Hebrew to Greek, used the literal Greek word for virgin, and not maiden. Thus clarifying all arguments centuries before the birth of Jesus. Is this true? What is your reading of it in the LXX Greek?
3. Lastly, I ask about the flood story. Many people who maintain the Bible to be nothing but fallacies state that the flood story if preposterous. (I don't care if you are Christian or not. Just at least accept that the Bible is really cool mythology, not lies ) Well, there is new evidence that that there was a huge flood in the region around the Medditerranian and Black Seas. National Geographic even did a few specials on it recently. It is not only in the culture and religions of all the peoples in those areas, but they also have extensive evidence pertaining to it. However, the evidence is not global. This supported suspicions I had before. In Hebrew, when the flood was on the "world", the word used is "?ָרֶץ" (eretz), and not what I would think "עֹלָ?" (olam) or "תֵּבֵל" (teiveil). "עֹלָ?" means "world, universe, eternity". "תֵּבֵל" means "the Earth, the globe, or moist". Whereas the word used, "?ָרֶץ" means "earth" but also means "land, country, area, or hard". Now in my knowledge of Hebrew (not saying I'm a leading expert or anything) "?ָרֶץ" is more cannoted to a smaller area. As "country" or "region". It is seldom used for "whole planet". "עֹלָ?" is popular. So what say you?
I hope these questions are not too hard for any of you. Or too dumb and simple. I again point out that I am on a textual/ gramatical quest here. Not a religous one. So I am not implying anything, and am making every effort not to offend anyone. Thank you all for your time and consideration. Good day!
-Avraham