John 1:15-18
Posted: Tue Dec 19, 2006 3:17 am
(15)’Ιωάννης μα?τυ?ει̃ πε?ὶ αὐτου̃ καὶ κέκ?αγεν λέγων οὑ̃τος ἠ̃ν ὃν εἰ̃πον ὁ ὀπίσω μου ἐ?χόμενος ἐ?μπ?οσθέν μου γέγονεν ὁ?τι π?ω̃τός μου ἠ̃ν
(16) ὁ?τι ἐκ του̃ πλη?ώματος αὐτου̃ ἡμει̃ς πάντες ἐλάβομεν καὶ χά?ιν ἀντὶ χά?ιτος
(17) ὁ?τι ὁ νόμος διὰ Μωϋσέως ἐδόθη ἡ χά?ις καὶ ἡ ἀλήθεια διὰ ’Ιησου̃ Χ?ιστου̃ ἐγένετο
(18) θεòν οὐδεὶς ἑώ?ακεν πώποτε μονογενὴς θεòς ὁ ὢν εἰς τòν κόλπον του̃ πατ?òς ἐκει̃νος ἐξηγήσατο
My question concerns the ὁ?τι at the beginning of verses 16 & 17. Do they mark the beginning (or continuation) of the discourse of John beginning in verse 15? Or does his discourse end in verse 15 and each subsequent verse should begin with 'Because'?
I hope I'm phrasing my question correctly. Any thoughts are greatly appreciated.
God Bless!!
RKBentley
(16) ὁ?τι ἐκ του̃ πλη?ώματος αὐτου̃ ἡμει̃ς πάντες ἐλάβομεν καὶ χά?ιν ἀντὶ χά?ιτος
(17) ὁ?τι ὁ νόμος διὰ Μωϋσέως ἐδόθη ἡ χά?ις καὶ ἡ ἀλήθεια διὰ ’Ιησου̃ Χ?ιστου̃ ἐγένετο
(18) θεòν οὐδεὶς ἑώ?ακεν πώποτε μονογενὴς θεòς ὁ ὢν εἰς τòν κόλπον του̃ πατ?òς ἐκει̃νος ἐξηγήσατο
My question concerns the ὁ?τι at the beginning of verses 16 & 17. Do they mark the beginning (or continuation) of the discourse of John beginning in verse 15? Or does his discourse end in verse 15 and each subsequent verse should begin with 'Because'?
I hope I'm phrasing my question correctly. Any thoughts are greatly appreciated.
God Bless!!
RKBentley