1Jn 2:2
Posted: Mon Dec 11, 2006 12:55 am
καὶ α?τὸς ίλασμός ?στιν πε?ὶ τῶν άμα?τιῶν ήμῶν, ο? πε?ὶ τῶν ήμετε?ῶν δὲ μόνον ἀλλὰ καὶ πε?ὶ ´όλου τοῦ κόσμου...
1. My first question is on the usage of ήμετε?ῶν versus ήμῶν. What are the general rules in using the two forms of "our"? Why the two forms in this verse, both are concerning "our sins"? The second usage seems to be as a noun(?), and takes the genitive because of the preposition and the first is genitive because it is showing possession and is not contained in the prepositional phrase(correct me if this is wrong).
2. The phrase, "α?τὸς ίλασμός ?στιν...". I was considering three possibilities for this and would be interested in any comments on them.
a. He is propitiation... Perhaps awkward in English but could be like, He is satisfaction... Is this sense awkward in Greek?
b. He is a propitiation... Grammatically fine but ruled out by context of both the letter of 1 John and the NT as a whole. Jesus is certainly not presented as just one of several "propitiations".
c. He is the proptiation... Very much the preferred translation on grammatical grounds and context. Would the use of the article before ίλασμός as in English ever be acceptable? or would this make ίλασμός the subject, as in The propitiation is He...?
Thanks for any comments.
1. My first question is on the usage of ήμετε?ῶν versus ήμῶν. What are the general rules in using the two forms of "our"? Why the two forms in this verse, both are concerning "our sins"? The second usage seems to be as a noun(?), and takes the genitive because of the preposition and the first is genitive because it is showing possession and is not contained in the prepositional phrase(correct me if this is wrong).
2. The phrase, "α?τὸς ίλασμός ?στιν...". I was considering three possibilities for this and would be interested in any comments on them.
a. He is propitiation... Perhaps awkward in English but could be like, He is satisfaction... Is this sense awkward in Greek?
b. He is a propitiation... Grammatically fine but ruled out by context of both the letter of 1 John and the NT as a whole. Jesus is certainly not presented as just one of several "propitiations".
c. He is the proptiation... Very much the preferred translation on grammatical grounds and context. Would the use of the article before ίλασμός as in English ever be acceptable? or would this make ίλασμός the subject, as in The propitiation is He...?
Thanks for any comments.