Just a quick question regarding the use of "Ἦν" in this verse: This is clearly an introductory use of the verb. My question is, will the Ἦν always appear at the start of a sentence if it is being used this way, or are there examples where it appears in other then the first word?John 3:1 wrote:Ἦν δὲ ἄνθρωπος ἐκ τῶν Φαρισαίων,
John 3:1
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John 3:1
μείζων ἐστὶν ὁ ἐν ὑμῖν ἢ ὁ ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ
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Re: John 3:1
An equally quick answer: It will come first if it means "There was".
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Re: John 3:1
This is "background material with presentational articulation"[1] used to introduce participants and other things.uberdwayne wrote:Just a quick question regarding the use of "Ἦν" in this verse: This is clearly an introductory use of the verb. My question is, will the Ἦν always appear at the start of a sentence if it is being used this way, or are there examples where it appears in other then the first word?John 3:1 wrote:Ἦν δὲ ἄνθρωπος ἐκ τῶν Φαρισαίων,
Mark 2:6 ἦσαν δέ τινες τῶν γραμματέων ἐκεῖ καθήμενοι καὶ διαλογιζόμενοι ἐν ταῖς καρδίαις αὐτῶν·
not always clause initial:
Matt. 21:33 Ἄλλην παραβολὴν ἀκούσατε. ἄνθρωπος ἦν οἰκοδεσπότης ὅστις ἐφύτευσεν ἀμπελῶνα καὶ φραγμὸν αὐτῷ περιέθηκεν καὶ ὤρυξεν ἐν αὐτῷ ληνὸν καὶ ᾠκοδόμησεν πύργον καὶ ἐξέδετο αὐτὸν γεωργοῖς καὶ ἀπεδήμησεν.
also used for background material which is explanatory:
Matt. 4:18 Περιπατῶν δὲ παρὰ τὴν θάλασσαν τῆς Γαλιλαίας εἶδεν δύο ἀδελφούς, Σίμωνα τὸν λεγόμενον Πέτρον καὶ Ἀνδρέαν τὸν ἀδελφὸν αὐτοῦ, βάλλοντας ἀμφίβληστρον εἰς τὴν θάλασσαν· ἦσαν γὰρ ἁλιεῖς.
The third example differs in that ἦσαν γὰρ ἁλιεῖς is not presentational. However it is part of a presentational constituent introducing δύο ἀδελφούς.
[1] S. Levinsohn 2000:90-91
C. Stirling Bartholomew
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Re: John 3:1
I stand corrected: not always first. But in “presentational” use it usually is. Cf. e.g. Jn.1:6 εγενετο ανθρωπος …. It’s a common way to introduce an ecphrasis, e.g. Vergil’s est in conspectu Tenedos; or a story, e.g. ην ποτε "Once upon a time there was ..." But prepositional or participial phrases can precede. Jn.1:1 εν αρχηι ην (I do so hope this is not where you're headed!) could well be translated “At the outset there was …”.
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Re: John 3:1
Thanks guys! Really helpful, especially your reference to Matt 21:33 C.S Looks as though its slightly below a "hard and fast" rule, yet above a general guideline!
Quick is normally good but I tend to get into the nitty gritty. I prefer the long answers
MWH wrote:An equally quick answer: It will come first if it means "There was".
Quick is normally good but I tend to get into the nitty gritty. I prefer the long answers
Careful Michael, there are some here that can sniff a Jn 1:1 discussion from a mile away!MWH wrote:Jn.1:1 εν αρχηι ην
μείζων ἐστὶν ὁ ἐν ὑμῖν ἢ ὁ ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ