John 1:16 wrote:Καὶ ἐκ τοῦ πληρώματος αὐτοῦ ἡμεῖς πάντες ἐλάβομεν, καὶ χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος.
I have 2 questions here regarding this passage. 1 is regarding punctuation and the other is regarding χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος.
Concerning punctuation, in most translations, the last part of this verse seems to be awkwardly tacked on to the end of the sentence "We have received, and grace for grace". Would it be better to remove the comma and translate the καὶ adverbially? (haha, I made the word adverb into an adverb!) We would end up with something like "And from his fullness we all have also received grace for/upon grace."
concerning the phrase χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος: There are two main streams of thought, one is that grace is piled on top of grace, with the idea that we are receiving a plethora of grace. The issue I take with this is that ἀντὶ is not typically used in the sense of "piling something on top of another" (Are there any examples of ἀντὶ being used in this way?) but rather shows a substitution. This is the second stream of thought. That a previous grace, that is, the law of Moses, has been supplanted by a newer grace, namely the new covenant which is by faith. This seems more in line with the use of ἀντὶ. The only problem here, is that the law would be considered a "grace" yet one could hardly see any grace in the law.
Any thoughts on this?