Numers 14:11 LXX
Posted: Sat Sep 23, 2006 12:41 am
καὶ εἶπεν κύ?ιος π?ὸς Μωυσῆν ?ως τίνος πα?οξύνει με ? λαὸς οὗτος καἰ ἔως τίνος ο? πιστεύουσίν μοι ?ν πᾶσιν τοῖς σημείοις, οἷς ?ποίησα ?ν α?τοῖς;I am having a little difficulty with the prepositional phrase ?ν πᾶσιν τοῖς σημείοις. Looking at translations is of some help but but not as useful as I'd like because even the Greek text is a translation.
Most translations have something like; "in spite of all the signs which I did among them." I found one Enlish translation that renders it; "in the face of all the signs..." and one Dutch translation that has something like; "by all the signs..."
"In the face of" has the same basic meaning as "in spite of" but it has to add the words; "the face of" to make an English prepositional phrase work.
"By all the signs" seems to correspond fairly close to the Greek text.
Is "in spite of all the signs" a valid rendering of ?ν πᾶσιν τοῖς σημείοις or is this English text (along with the Greek) a more or less accurate translation of the Hebrew, but the Greek and English don't correspond that closely?
Most translations have something like; "in spite of all the signs which I did among them." I found one Enlish translation that renders it; "in the face of all the signs..." and one Dutch translation that has something like; "by all the signs..."
"In the face of" has the same basic meaning as "in spite of" but it has to add the words; "the face of" to make an English prepositional phrase work.
"By all the signs" seems to correspond fairly close to the Greek text.
Is "in spite of all the signs" a valid rendering of ?ν πᾶσιν τοῖς σημείοις or is this English text (along with the Greek) a more or less accurate translation of the Hebrew, but the Greek and English don't correspond that closely?