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"ἦν" in John 1:1

PostPosted: Sun Oct 28, 2012 2:52 am
by uberdwayne
Hey Guys,

I was wondering what usage the ἦν's in John 1:1 would be labeled as, I was thinking Gnomic, but appearently, a Gnomic Imperfect doesn't really exist in the NT. If this is a Customary Imperfect, how is it seen as something that extends to before "ἐν ἀρχῃ." Could it be leximatic? Johns use of ειμι rather than γινομαι? Anyway, I've been going through my syntax books, and am having trouble trying to classify these imperfects.


Note: I believe there are other passages that support a trinitarian view, however, I am not looking to start a debate; I am only looking to understand the uses of the imperfects in this particular verse.

Re: "ἦν" in John 1:1

PostPosted: Fri Dec 28, 2012 2:14 am
by Bert
Hi Uberdwayne. Sometimes it is not very useful to put a label on a certain usage. If you understand what it means without having a name for it, you are all set. Maybe durative imperfect would be what it could be called. A verbose translation could be "...was and continues to be..."

Re: "ἦν" in John 1:1

PostPosted: Sat Dec 29, 2012 5:23 am
by Markos
Sometimes it is not very useful to put a label on a certain usage. If you understand what it means without having a name for it, you are all set.


συμφημι δη τῳ Βερτῳ σοφῳ οντι!

{I agree 100% with the wise words of Bert!}