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In a sentence that consists of two parts it is common to have the verb omitted from the second part.
1 Tim. 4:18 seems to have this happen with the direct object.
ῥύσεταί με ὁ κύριος ἀπὸ παντὸς ἔγου πονηροῦ καὶ σώσει εἰς τὴν βασιλείαν αὐτοῦ τὴν ἐπουράνιον· με is omitted in the second half of the sentence, but it seems to be the object here as well.
Is this a comon thing? I can't recall seeing it before.

are you sure that the object is the same in both clauses??

(just kidding, I'm sure it is)

I don't think it's REALLY common but I'm sure I've seen Paul at least doing it here and there. But I can't name any instances off the top of my head. :(

Hi Bert,

I researched this high and low, finding almost nothing.

You are certainly right that the 2nd clause has an understood direct object μέ.

For now I would lay such ellipsis at the doorstep of style.

Cordially,

Paul

Here what I found in Aeschines, 2, 68 on Perseus

κάλει δέ μοι )αμύντορα )ερχιέα καὶ ἐκκλήτευε, ἐὰν μὴ θέλῃ δευρὶ παρεῖναι

"if you please, call Amyntor of the deme Herchia; if he does not come hither voluntarily, serve summons upon him." (Translation from Perseus)

The "upon him" matches the implied direct object of ἐκκλήτευε