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Perfects in Rev. 3:8

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Perfects in Rev. 3:8

Postby Bert » Wed Dec 22, 2004 1:09 am

My understanding of the perfect tense is that it describes a state rather than
an action.
I am curious how this affects the meaning of a phrase in Revelation 3:8.
i[face=SPIonic])dou\ de/dwka e)nw/pio/n sou qu/ran h)new|gme/nhn,[/face]
Concerning the first perfect, [face=SPIonic]de/dwka [/face], is it important that it has been given,
or just that it is available now?
Concerning the second perfect, [face=SPIonic]h)new|gme/nhn[/face], my question is; Does this
participle say anything about the fact that this door was opened, or just that
it is standing open, maybe just happened to stand open?

Thank you.
Bert
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Postby Paul » Wed Dec 22, 2004 4:39 am

Bert wrote:Concerning the first perfect, [face=SPIonic]de/dwka [/face], is it important that it has been given, or just that it is available now?


Hi Bert,

Well, in order to be available now it must first be given.

I would say that the perfect here stresses the present availability of the given door. In otherwords, this perfect denotes a persistent state of the object.

Bert wrote:Concerning the second perfect, [face=SPIonic]h)new|gme/nhn[/face], my question is; Does this participle say anything about the fact that this door was opened, or just that it is standing open, maybe just happened to stand open?


I don't think this perfect participle says anything about the opening of the door. Rather, simply that the door is open and remains open.

Cordially,

Paul
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Postby Bert » Wed Dec 22, 2004 1:04 pm

Thanks Paul. Concerning your first comment (Well, in order to be available now it must first be given.) Would there then only be a very slight difference in meaning if the verb had been in the 3 rd person, "someone has given..." or even " you have taken for yourself..." ?

(I was hoping that you would be at least one of the ones to reply, considering the work you have done on verb aspect, so thanks again)
Bert
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Postby Paul » Thu Dec 23, 2004 5:52 pm

Bert wrote:Concerning your first comment (Well, in order to be available now it must first be given.) Would there then only be a very slight difference in meaning if the verb had been in the 3 rd person, "someone has given..." or even " you have taken for yourself..." ?


Hi Bert,

Yeah, that's how I see it. The clause sooner concerns the persistent availability of an open door than who put it there.

Cordially,

Paul
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