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Geoff
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by Geoff » Sat Jun 26, 2004 4:12 pm
In Mark 3:30 there is a quote from Jesus, but at the end of the quote is an explanatory statment from the penman and not spoken by Jesus.
The final clause begins with ὁτι
Is this really the normal use here needing a translation of "because" or is it just setting apart the extra statement similar to a quotation mark?
klewlis
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by klewlis » Sun Jun 27, 2004 10:40 pm
My first instinct is to say "because". But it is possible that my instinct is informed by my familiarity with the NASB. ;)
I suppose it could be either way. I'd check a commentary but haven't any for Mark here.
First say to yourself what you would be; then do what you need to do. ~Epictetus