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by Geoff » Sat Jun 26, 2004 4:12 pm
In Mark 3:30 there is a quote from Jesus, but at the end of the quote is an explanatory statment from the penman and not spoken by Jesus.
The final clause begins with [face=SPIonic]o(ti[/face]
Is this really the normal use here needing a translation of "because" or is it just setting apart the extra statement similar to a quotation mark?
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Geoff
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by klewlis » Sun Jun 27, 2004 10:40 pm
My first instinct is to say "because". But it is possible that my instinct is informed by my familiarity with the NASB. ;)
I suppose it could be either way. I'd check a commentary but haven't any for Mark here.
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