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by Skylax » Fri Feb 27, 2004 5:55 pm
I don't know. Maybe analogy with [face=SPIonic]fqa/nw[/face] ? Hebraism ???
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by bingley » Sat Feb 28, 2004 1:24 am
Oh well, thanks anyway.
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by klewlis » Sat Feb 28, 2004 8:54 pm
I can't check the right resources just now, but I think it may be a somewhat irregular verb. Check out Mark 10:21, where the same form is used for present active indicative second person singular, where you would expect an [face=spionic]eij[/face] ending.
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by bingley » Mon Mar 01, 2004 4:49 am
[face=SPIonic] [21] o( de\ )Ihsou=j e)mble/yaj au)tw=| h)ga/phsen au)to\n kai\ ei)=pen au)tw=| (/En se u(sterei=: [/face]
Then the LSJ is misleading. By these two references it seems that the subject is the thing lacked and the object is the person lacking it.
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by Koala » Mon Mar 01, 2004 3:02 pm
I suspect Bingley is right
compare the French use of "manquer"
[face=SPIonic]u(stere/w[/face] : of persons, 'lack'; of things, [face=SPIonic]u(.tina/ [/face] 'be deficient/lacking' to one
Ref: A Grammatical Analysis of the Greek New Testament, Zerwick and Grosvenor, 1974
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