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he came to his own (τὰ ἴδια) John 1:11

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he came to his own (τὰ ἴδια) John 1:11

Postby NuGrkStu » Wed Apr 19, 2017 7:58 am

Was wondering what is the significance of the change of 'to his own' might be in the following verse:

εἰς τὰ ἴδια ἦλθεν, καὶ οἱ ἴδιοι αὐτὸν οὐ παρέλαβον.

what's the significance of the change from (neuter) to (masculine) "he came to his own but his own did not recognize him"?

Blessings
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Re: he came to his own (τὰ ἴδια) John 1:11

Postby Isaac Newton » Wed Apr 19, 2017 12:36 pm

τὰ ἴδια denotes "his own country"/"his own hometown", and οἱ ἴδιοι refers specifically to his "own people," hence the masculine.
Οὐαὶ οἱ λέγοντες τὸ πονηρὸν καλὸν καὶ τὸ καλὸν πονηρόν, οἱ τιθέντες τὸ σκότος φῶς καὶ τὸ φῶς σκότος, οἱ τιθέντες τὸ πικρὸν γλυκὺ καὶ τὸ γλυκὺ πικρόν
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Re: he came to his own (τὰ ἴδια) John 1:11

Postby Barry Hofstetter » Mon May 22, 2017 3:01 pm

NuGrkStu wrote:Was wondering what is the significance of the change of 'to his own' might be in the following verse:

εἰς τὰ ἴδια ἦλθεν, καὶ οἱ ἴδιοι αὐτὸν οὐ παρέλαβον.

what's the significance of the change from (neuter) to (masculine) "he came to his own but his own did not recognize him"?

Blessings


The neuter plural, lit. "his own things" refers to what is his in the broadest sense, the masculine plural refers specifically to "his own people."
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
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Semper melius Latine sonat...
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