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πρὸς Τρώων· τῶν οὔ τι μετατρέπῃ οὐδ' ἀλεγίζεις,

The 4th meter ends in a long vowel, followed by the first syllable of the next meter that begins with a vowel.
Is it squeezed into a short syllable for the meter's sake? Or is the half of its length absorbed by the next syllable?
I couldn't find the exact reference to this case in Pharr.

1173?

Zeus must have obscured my eyes!
Thanks so much!

I kept failing to find the section about prosody and was wandering around pronunciations.
You must be Pallas Athena in disguise of Lex come to open my eyes.

[edit]
Methinks I am the dull kid.

mingshey wrote:You must be Pallas Athena in disguise of Lex come to open my eyes.

Nah, nobody here but dull old Lex. At least I hope I'm not an avatar of Athena. I'd hate to think what I'd look like in a bronze bustier! *shudder*

I had just recently learned this rule for the first time, as you can see in the "Prosody Questions" thread in this board, so it was still fresh in my mind. Perhaps αἱ Μοῖραι are responsible?

Lex wrote:1173?

Also known as "epic correption." It's very common in hexamter verse.