Iliad 1:83 plural pronoun
Posted: Wed Oct 22, 2003 1:29 am
ἐν στήθεσσιν ἑοῖσι.I am curious why the pronoun is plural. Pharr explains why sth/qessin is plural but not why ἑοι‐σι is too.
Isn't the number of a pronoun dictated by its antecedent?
The antecedent of ἑοῖσι is (I think) the singular βασιλεύς of verse 80
p.s. I am very glad that I have the opportunity to ask these questions.
Without this opportunity it would be difficult to muster the "stick-to-it- uvness that is needed.
THANK YOU
Isn't the number of a pronoun dictated by its antecedent?
The antecedent of ἑοῖσι is (I think) the singular βασιλεύς of verse 80
p.s. I am very glad that I have the opportunity to ask these questions.
Without this opportunity it would be difficult to muster the "stick-to-it- uvness that is needed.
THANK YOU