Hi, just wondered if anyone could help explain this translation of a line in the Iliad (1.64):
ἀλλ᾽ ἄγε δή τινα μάντιν ἐρείομεν ἢ ἱερῆα
ἢ καὶ ὀνειροπόλον, καὶ γάρ τ᾽ ὄναρ ἐκ Διός ἐστιν,
ὅς κ᾽ εἴποι ὅ τι τόσσον ἐχώσατο Φοῖβος Ἀπόλλων,
It's the part where Achilles proposes they should ask a prophet why Apollo is so angry with them. It's the last line in the paragraph above which I'm struggling with. I know the translation is something like 'who might say why Phoebus Apollo is so angry', but I don't understand how the ὅ τι (underlined above) translates into 'why'?
Thanks in advance.
Iliad Book 1, line 64
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Re: Iliad Book 1, line 64
ὅ τι is the neuter of ὅστις (see Smyth 339). It's sometimes written as ὅ, τι. I assume all the graphical strangeness is to differentiate it from ὅτι, but I don't actually know. It has got its own entry in the LSJ, which cites this very line.
“One might get one’s Greek from the very lips of Homer and Plato." "In which case they would certainly plough you for the Little-go. The German scholars have improved Greek so much.”
Joel Eidsath -- jeidsath@gmail.com
Joel Eidsath -- jeidsath@gmail.com
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Re: Iliad Book 1, line 64
Thank you!jeidsath wrote:ὅ τι is the neuter of ὅστις (see Smyth 339). It's sometimes written as ὅ, τι. I assume all the graphical strangeness is to differentiate it from ὅτι, but I don't actually know. It has got its own entry in the LSJ, which cites this very line.
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Re: Iliad Book 1, line 64
You’re dead right, Joel. In order to differentiate it from the conjunction ὅτι, the singular neuter nominative-accusative of the relative-interrogative ὅστις is written either ὅ τι or ὅ, τι. The practice is obviously modern.jeidsath wrote:ὅ τι is the neuter of ὅστις (see Smyth 339). It's sometimes written as ὅ, τι. I assume all the graphical strangeness is to differentiate it from ὅτι, but I don't actually know.
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Re: Iliad Book 1, line 64
It's an adverbial accusative, 'regarding what', 'with reference to what', hence 'why'.