In Iliad 1.44, I'm encountering the phrase χωόμενος κῆρ for the first time, and am having trouble parsing it. I understand the meaning given in context, but don't quite understand the agreement. κῆρ is unambiguously neuter, right? And χωόμενος is masculine and modifies Φοῖβος Ἀπόλλων from the preceding line? How exactly do χωόμενος and κῆρ work together syntactically?
Does the participle somehow take an accusative argument in this phrase? Is it that simple?
Thank you.
χωόμενος κῆρ - agreement, etc.
-
- Textkit Neophyte
- Posts: 9
- Joined: Fri Jul 26, 2013 7:32 pm
- jeidsath
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 5325
- Joined: Mon Dec 30, 2013 2:42 pm
- Location: Γαλεήπολις, Οὐισκόνσιν
Re: χωόμενος κῆρ - agreement, etc.
I believe it's an accusative or respect:
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/tex ... ction%3D91
Angry in his heart.
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/tex ... ction%3D91
Angry in his heart.
“One might get one’s Greek from the very lips of Homer and Plato." "In which case they would certainly plough you for the Little-go. The German scholars have improved Greek so much.”
Joel Eidsath -- jeidsath@gmail.com
Joel Eidsath -- jeidsath@gmail.com
-
- Textkit Neophyte
- Posts: 9
- Joined: Fri Jul 26, 2013 7:32 pm
Re: χωόμενος κῆρ - agreement, etc.
Okay, thank you. No more questions from me until I'm at least through book I. I should have been able to find that...
-
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 2504
- Joined: Mon Aug 17, 2015 1:16 pm
Re: χωόμενος κῆρ - agreement, etc.
Don't hesitate to ask more questions, even before you reach the end of Book 1.
Bill Walderman