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This line reads as follows: [size=150]εἴ ποτε κραιαίνει ἄναξ ἐέλδωρ ἱερῆι, δαναοὶ τίσουσι δάκρυα γέροντος βέλεσσιν θεοῦ. I think I know what this means but I would like to make sure that I am on the right path. I'll give my translation with the words in bold print being the ones that I am unsure of. Any comment will be appreciated.<br /><br />If at any time the Protector performs his will for the priest, the Greeks will pay for the tears of the old man by means of the arrows of god.

It looks right to me.<br /><br />I normally translate [size=150]ποτέ as "ever" when it follows [size=150]εἰ, but that's just a stylistic matter.<br /><br />

I quite agree with 'if ever' for [size=150]εἴ ποτε.<br /><br />Less sure about whose [size=150]ἐέλδωρ we're talking about. I read it as the desire not<br />of [size=150]ἄναξ, but of [size=150]ἱερῆι.<br /><br />Book A is rife with examples of neuter nouns with a dative showing almost a kind of posssion; cf. instances of [size=150]γέρας. See also A.41.<br /><br />I would translate (the meaning, not the words) as "If ever<br />the protector fulfills the priest's wish..."<br /><br />Cordially,<br /><br />Paul<br />

Thanks to both of you.<br />In trying to translate the dative [size=150]ἱερῆι I didn't even consider that it was the desire of the priest and not of Apollo. It does make more sence that way though. <br />In New Testament Greek I would have expected a word in the genitive to indicate whose desire it was.<br />Several times in Homer I have noticed that I have to supply the word 'his'. Is this a characteristic of Homer or Classical Greek in general?

Bert de Haan wrote:<br />In trying to translate the dative [size=150]ἱερῆι I didn't even consider that it was the desire of the priest and not of Apollo. It does make more sence that way though. <br />

<br /> <br />Yep. Grammarian types call it the "dative of interest." He accomplishes the will for the priest.<br /><br />

<br />In New Testament Greek I would have expected a word in the genitive to indicate whose desire it was.<br />Several times in Homer I have noticed that I have to supply the word 'his'. Is this a characteristic of Homer or Classical Greek in general?<br />

<br /><br />Yep. Often classical will use the definite article where an English speaker would use a possesive. [size=150]ἀεὶ ἀκούω τοῦ πατρός "I always listen to the (i.e. my) father."<br /><br />Homer will omit such things if the context is clear and it suits him to do so.