swiftnicholas wrote:I guess my question is whether we always take it in the 3rd foot, and if not *always*, then how vivid must the break in sense be? More than all of these examples?
Dem.46 Î¿á½”Ï„' Î¿á¼°Ï‰Î½á¿¶Î½ Ï„Î¹Ï‚ | Ï„á¿‡ | á¼Ï„á½µÏ„Ï…Î¼Î¿Ï‚ á¼„Î³Î³ÎµÎ»Î¿Ï‚ á¼¦Î»Î¸ÎµÎ½.
Here I would be inclined to see the caesura before Ï„á¿‡, as the direct object of á¼¦Î»Î¸ÎµÎ½; but is it instead accounting for the hiatus of Ï„á¿‡ | á¼Ï„á½µÏ„Ï…Î¼Î¿Ï‚?
chad wrote:diaresis: no, really every word ends at either a caesura or diaresis by definition; of these the only ones of practical interest are the ones which can show you the 'joins' in homeric verses, i.e. the common starting or ending points of homeric formulae. 2 such points are the caesura and the bucolic diaresis, where you have many formula sets beginning and ending, and you have correption patterns different to all other points in the line.
annis wrote:Actually, there's an entire area of study about how the hexameter is put together, where breaks are most likely, where they aren't, etc. Chad has read more about than I have, but I've been looking at it, especially localization, a lot recently. I hope to have a summary (with references) ready for Aoidoi, post-redesign.
swiftnicholas wrote:Is there some indication (either because of this or something else) that the language in epic speech is notably different than that of narrative?
annis wrote:You know, I think Homer has spawned several entire publishing industries.
abstract nouns far more likely in speech
chad wrote:the point about correption occurring more often in speech than in poetry suggested to Kelly 1990 that epic poetry was a development from a proto-epic genre where the speeches were in verse and the narrative was in prose, which as a genre has parallels in other ancient IE family members apparently.
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