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Pharr §53.6

Posted: Sat Oct 22, 2005 4:49 am
by tbjohnston
The exercise is to translate from Greek into English,

ὁ/τε κακῶς προσέειπεν Α0τρεί+δης Χρύσην, τότε ἐχόλωσεν, ἑκηβόλον.

Although Pharr has not yet introduced the adverbial form of κακῶς yet, it seems to make more sense to me to treat κακῶς as an adverb modifying προσέειπεν rather than a feminine singular genitive adjective [and frankly, I couldn't find any noun or other adjective for it to modify].

My translation: When the son of Atreus addressed Chryses harshly, then he enraged the free-shooter.

Any thoughts? Thanks

Posted: Sat Oct 22, 2005 5:35 am
by GlottalGreekGeek
Is there a reason for the second comma?

Personally, I would have used κακά (neuter accusative plural) instead of κακῶς, but that might just be my style.

Posted: Sat Oct 22, 2005 5:52 am
by tbjohnston
No reason for the second comma...my mistake.

Posted: Sat Oct 22, 2005 5:47 pm
by Bert
tbj I think your translation is correct.
κακῶς is an adverb so you don't have to wonder about a feminine noun that it could modify. Fem. gen. sg. of [size=150]κακός[/size]is [size=150]κακῆς[/size] and plural is [size=150]κακῶν[/size].