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I hope this is not too barbaric a question, but -- Mr. Pharr says that the different kinds of accents probably indicated changes in pitch but just how is not known. There then follows rule after rule for transformation of accents from one kind to the next.

I am inclined to ignore these and just worry about which syllables get stresses. This may be wrong from a philosophical standpoint, but as my goal is to read the Iliad, and not write my own epigrams, can I get away with this?

few people beginning greek learn accents;
fewer people still pay heed of them having learnt the principles;
fewer even still employ such principles when reading greek by orating the text aloud so as to exhibit the shifts in pitch.

if you want to appreciate the true poetic beauty of the Il, however, it is wise just to learn the basic directions in pitch with which the accents direct the words' flow. they were, of course, artificially created by Aristophanes of Byzantium to allow non-Greeks, such as ourselves, to apply the appropriate pitch variants.

~D

hi conditionalis, it's your choice as to whether to follow the "university" pronunciation (incorrect historically, but consistently applied and understood by classics teachers) or the "reconstructed" pronunciation (more accurate historically but still speculative in its details). if you want to at least try for a few minutes a reconstructed pronunciation, you can see my "iliad 1" document on this temporary site

http://iliad.envy.nu

(i think i've typed up to line 44)

As a beginner, it is best to begin your study by mastering the basics of ancient Greek accentuation. This will save you from many headaches in the future. A simple and effective way to do this is to read the section on Accentuation in the Hansen and Quinn textbook. In this text, the rules of accentuation are explained clearly and concisely, and the drills/exercises will provide you with ample practice.

Regarding the pitch accents, you may want to read the introductory section of the Mastronarde textbook. As he points out, there is no clear consensus on how the pitch accents actually sounded, and one is best served by simply substituting a stress accent as does modern Greek.

hi baroque, i read this article very soon after beginning greek, and i was instantly indoctrinated and i haven't looked back

http://community.middlebury.edu/~harris ... cents.html

I know this thread is old, but I wanted to offer Philomen Probert's A New Short Guide to the Accentuation of Ancient Greek to those interested in the subject. I have found it useful. It's available from the usual suspects online (Amazon, et al.).

I think the rules should be followed, but they seem very abstract when just starting as a beginner (like me). But, as you progress, and you do not have to go very far (or is Pharr !!!? ), you will find that the accents are actually helping understand the meaning of the text.

For example, in nouns of the first declension, how could we differentiate between the nominative and dative cases in a sentence without the accents?

jk0592 wrote:For example, in nouns of the first declension, how could we differentiate between the nominative and dative cases in a sentence without the accents?

By pronouncing the iota subscript, which was pronounced until around 350 BC.

You are right about iota subscript. However, if accents are disregarded, it can be assumed that more exotic signs like the iota subscripts also are not taken into consideration.

iota subscriptum is not an accent, and I think that at least beginners should write it as adscriptum and pronounce it, in order to avoid confusion, ease the reading and better memorize the terminations/contractions.
As for accents, I suggest you master each accent at a time, the fact that your text book expects you to swallow them (which causes most people to puke, rather than understand them), doesn’t mean you have to learn them all at the same time.

Leave the grav a lone for a moment.
Gain a good control over the acute, and about a week later master the rules for the circumflex. Start with simple words such as dou~los dou'lou.
Remember: nouns and adjective retain the original position of the accent.

The circumflex is only “placed? on one of the last two long syllables. The penult (second syllable from the end of the word) can take a circumflex when its long and the ultima (the last syllable) is short. Hence when the termination becomes long(as in the case of dou’lou) it would change to the acute. I remember reading somewhere that the circumflex is actually a combination of of grav and acute - I think it was in an old primer or goodwin.

The grav is the most simple: when you have an acute on the last syllable turn it into grav(except if there's an enclitic, but leave this matter for a later time.)