Word Order and Paragraph 47

[kalowski]

O Textkit! What an excellent site!!

On another thread (http://www.textkit.com/greek-latin-forum/viewtopic.php?t=217), Koala, has
begun to put up answers for discussion. This is really helpful for a beginner like me. However, I have one or two questions..


For In the village were tents
Comparing one of Koala's answers:

Paragraph 47<br />[face=SPIonic] <br />e)n tai~j kwmai~j h]san skhnai/.<br />[/face]

to mine:
[face=SPIonic]e)n tai=j kw/maij skhnai/ h]san[/face]

Apart from my, probably, dodgy accents (they're causing me some problems..) is there a concensus (for a beginner) on word order. I guess, a bit like may occur in German, I put the verb at the end...


Secondly, for

They have tents and slings

I put: [face=SPIonic]skhna8j kai sfengo/va/j e)/xousi[/face]

Koala put:
[face=SPIonic]skhna\j kai\ sfendo/naj e/)xousin.[/face]

The final [face=SPIonic]n[/face] being because it ends the sentence? Is that right?


Finally, why does Koala have [face=SPIonic]kai\[/face] and I only have [face=SPIonic]kai[/face]? Why the different [face=SPIonic]i\[/face]?

Many thanks for any help.

[Carola]

I'm having a bit of trouble reading some of the text - there seems to be some odd spaces appearing between letters? I haven't been learning Greek for very long but it seems that, like Latin, the word order is always more as in your example (except in poetry but that's another matter), although the first and last words are sometimes used for emphasis. Maybe Koala has just used English word order so people don't get confused at this early stage, but it isn't wrong, just not the usual order.
I don't have my notebook with me but for # 2 if you look at the note on Ex. 59 this shows an example.

The verb "to be" is set out fully on P 261. this might be of help.

[annis]

I guess, a bit like may occur in German, I put the verb at the end...

No, no. Latinists want to do this too. You may place the verb last in a clause, but it has no special attraction for that position. English word order would work, or even the verb first if the mood strikes - it emphasizes the verb - though with forms of [face=spionic]ei)mi/[/face] that strongly implies "there is/are."

The final [face=SPIonic]n[/face] being because it ends the sentence? Is that right?

Yes.

Why the different [face=SPIonic]i\[/face]?

When a word that ends in an acute accent is followed by another word, the accent is written grave. Before punctuation, it stays acute.