Hey, I’m having some trouble discerning the usage of the infinitive in the Prologue of Euripides’ Alecestis
ὁσίου γὰρ ἀνδρὸς ὅσιος ὢν ἐτύγχανον
παιδὸς Φέρητος, ὃν θανεῖν ἐρρυσάμην,
This is between lines 10 and 12. I have:
For, being pious, I happened upon a pious man, the son of Pheres, whom I saved from dying, having deceived Moira
Why would the infinitive be translated as "dying" here, rather than "to die"? Obviously the former being the only sensible translation. I believe that might be called an articular infinitive, which needs a definite article (in this case, genitive to get the sense of "ek"), would it not?
Also immediately following:
ᾔνεσαν δέ μοι θεαὶ
Ἄδμητον Ἅιδην τὸν παραυτίκ᾽ ἐκφυγεῖν,
ἄλλον διαλλάξαντα τοῖς κάτω νεκρόν.
And the godesses put up with Admetus (acc., direct object of the main verb) immediately escaping Hades/ death (also acc. as the object of the infinitive?)
Here again, it seems to demand that the infinitive be translated like a present active finite verb.
Can anyone help me understand the grammar behind this?