Absolute accusative is almost always of an impersonal construction. Sometimes, however, a participle of a personal verb may be used in accusative (eventhough moslty in nominative) for some reasons. As in the following situation, where the sorrow and the immotional intense because of the defeat is expressed by the use of this stylistic choice ("σχῆμα ἀνακόλουθον"):
184.108.40.206 Xen. Hellenica
Ἐν δὲ ταῖς Ἀθήναις τῆς Παράλου ἀφικομένης
νυκτὸς (absolute genitive)
ἐλέγετο ἡ συμφορά, καὶ οἰμωγὴ ἐκ τοῦ Πειραιῶς διὰ τῶν
μακρῶν τειχῶν εἰς ἄστυ διῆκεν, ὁ ἕτερος
τῷ ἑτέρῳ παραγγέλλων.
(nominative absolute, instead of genitive)
why is the participle in your example in female gender
modus.irrealis wrote:τῶν ἀγαθῶν ἐστιν = it is one of the goods
τὸ μὴ ἐπαινεῖσθαι μηνύει τῶν ἀγαθῶν οὖσαν
if I understand correctly your point, then should not it be like: τὸ μὴ ἐπαινεῖσθαι μηνύει τῶν ἀγαθῶν ὄν
But even in this situation, what the syntax goes like?
Thanks in advance!
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