Is it known why the names of many prominent cities in Greek and Latin are plural nouns? e.g. á¼ˆÎ¸á¿†Î½Î±Î¹, Î”ÎµÎ»Ï†Î¿á½·, Î˜á¿†Î²Î±Î¹, Cannae. Under the heading for á¼ˆÎ¸á¿†Î½Î±Î¹, my Lewis & Scott says:
used in pl., because it consisted of several parts
That seems really unlikely to me. Is there a consensus on this?
flebile nescio quid queritur lyra, flebile lingua murmurat exanimis, respondent flebile ripae