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Athenaze questions

Postby Lucus Eques » Thu Dec 27, 2007 2:21 pm

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Re: Athenaze questions

Postby annis » Thu Dec 27, 2007 2:30 pm

Lucus Eques wrote: Is that the correct interpretation of the μὲν...δὲ construction?


Yes.

Attend to the tense!
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Postby Lucus Eques » Thu Dec 27, 2007 8:41 pm

Woot!

Why in particular should I attend to the tense?
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Postby tico » Thu Dec 27, 2007 9:09 pm

Lucus Eques wrote:Woot!

Why in particular should I attend to the tense?

Verbs are in present tense, not in past, as in your translation.
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Postby Lucus Eques » Thu Dec 27, 2007 9:31 pm

Ah! true. The passive voice mistaken as past ... rookie mistake. Thanks.
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Postby Interaxus » Fri Dec 28, 2007 1:07 am

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Postby Lucus Eques » Sat Dec 29, 2007 6:11 am

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Postby annis » Sat Dec 29, 2007 3:16 pm

William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
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Postby annis » Sat Dec 29, 2007 3:17 pm

Interaxus wrote:My problem concerns the ’night falls’ phrase: a) why the change in word order? b) why did ’night’ lose its 1990 definite article


This takes us into tricky waters of stylistics and idiom. My guess would be someone found an example in actual Greek which caused them to update the wording.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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Postby Lucus Eques » Sat Dec 29, 2007 3:36 pm

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Postby Interaxus » Sun Dec 30, 2007 3:43 am

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Postby Lucus Eques » Sun Dec 30, 2007 5:12 am

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Postby Lucus Eques » Sun Dec 30, 2007 5:25 am

I thought up another question, this time about prosody:

Are word accents where one MUST change pitch, or merely places where one MAY raise the pitch? I've been treating them as necessary all this time; a few of them on occasion feel artificial.
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Postby Interaxus » Sun Dec 30, 2007 12:18 pm

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Postby annis » Mon Dec 31, 2007 1:50 am

Lucus Eques wrote:Are word accents where one MUST change pitch, or merely places where one MAY raise the pitch?


I've never seen it suggested that the accent in Greek was anything but obligatory.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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Postby annis » Mon Dec 31, 2007 1:53 am

Interaxus wrote:Or is there some dual dative pronoun around the corner?


There is — σφῷν — but I doubt you'd find it terribly often in prose.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
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Postby jk0592 » Mon Dec 31, 2007 5:17 am

Or is there some dual dative pronoun around the corner?


You will not find this in Athenaze...
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Postby Interaxus » Wed Jan 02, 2008 12:31 am

You will not find this in Athenaze...

Can't say I'm sorry.

Cheers,
Int
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Postby Lucus Eques » Thu Jan 03, 2008 3:49 am

Is there a major difference between ὅτε and ἔπεί?
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Postby Bert » Fri Jan 04, 2008 12:37 am

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Postby jk0592 » Fri Jan 04, 2008 12:48 am

Jean K.
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Postby Lucus Eques » Sun Jan 06, 2008 4:13 am

L. Amadeus Ranierius

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Postby Lucus Eques » Sun Jan 06, 2008 4:21 am

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Postby Lucus Eques » Tue Jan 15, 2008 4:16 pm

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Postby Bob Manske » Tue Jan 15, 2008 10:26 pm

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Postby annis » Tue Jan 15, 2008 10:55 pm

William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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Postby annis » Tue Jan 15, 2008 10:56 pm

William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
annis
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