"o ge" in Homer

[vir litterarum]

several times in reading the Iliad I have seen "o ge" used, and I was just wondering what the function of "ge" is in this combination. Any time I see it seems to be virtually indistinguishable from just "o" alone.

[modus.irrealis]

Its function there is pretty much the same as in other places -- basically focusing on or (through focusing) limiting a statement to a particular word/phrase. I think in general it's not too far wrong to say ? = "he" and ὅ γε = "he". But since in Greek the subject particles on their own imply a sort of focusing, I can see how it would seem superfluous. Denniston in "Greek Particles" says "often it [γε with pronouns] seems to be otiose, the pronoun apparently requiring no stress, or at most a secondary stress. The same tendency occasionally shows itself in English, as when we say 'Not I', meaning 'I certainly did not'."

Are there any examples in particular?

[vir litterarum]

ἀλλ᾽ ἄγε δή τινα μάντιν ??είομεν ἢ ἱε?ῆα
ἢ καὶ ὀνει?οπόλον, καὶ γά? τ᾽ ὄνα? ?κ Διός ?στιν,
ὅς κ᾽ εἴποι ὅ τι τόσσον ?χώσατο Φοῖβος Ἀπόλλων,
εἴτ᾽ ἄ?᾽ ὅ γ᾽ ε?χωλῆς ?πιμέμφεται ἠδ᾽ ἑκατόμβης,
Il. 1.62-65
In this passage I don't see any reason for he being emphasized.
It just seems like some commentators take "ge" as being present merely to fill out the meter. It seems to me, though, that it is used sometimes either after or before someone makes a speech to better distinguish him from his audience e.g. 1.101 and 1.68.

[modus.irrealis]

I understand the γε here as limiting the statement to Apollo only. Achilles wants to know whether Apollo finds fault with this or that, and not what the seer might think. To use direct questions, I can imagine someone in English saying "Why is Apollo angry? Does he find fault with this or with that?" where the second question rules out mere speculation over why he's angry and indicates that the speaker wants to know Apollo's reasons. In other words, it places the focus squarely on Apollo.

For the other lines, I think the same as you. It also, though, contrasts the person who has just finished speaking with someone who's about to speak.

[vir litterarum]

got it.

[IreneY]

Apart from everything else already noted (emphasis, saving us from confusing between who is "he" in "he said" and "he replied" etc) note that in a poem there's always the meter to think of.

[vir litterarum]

Just rented Denniston from the library. absolutely amazing reference work. I hate how Greek textbooks always describe Greek particles so narrowly and positively: "'ge' means 'at least' or 'indeed.'" Someone needs to write a textbook that thoroughly explains just how nuanced and untranslatable particles often are instead of merely providing superficial means of translation, even at the beginning stages of learning the language.

[annis]

[Bert]

(1) Epic, μέν τοι. Determination of the force of μέν is here, as often, difficult at this early stage in the development of logical thought.

I guess people 3000 years ago or so hadn't learned to think logically yet. (Maybe they only barely had thinking without logic down pat.)

[annis]

I guess people 3000 years ago or so hadn't learned to think logically yet. (Maybe they only barely had thinking without logic down pat.)

Before Plato the poor, dimwitted dears could hardly do more than pick their noses and bang each other over the head while declaiming hexameters at each other.

[vir litterarum]

I haven't really delved into his examples yet, and I think most of them are unnecessary. I was just looking for a reference book that gave a thorough discussion of each particle's general usage, an area where I think Smyth is weak, and Denniston does this very well.