usages of "kai"

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vir litterarum
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usages of "kai"

Post by vir litterarum »

τά τε γὰ? ἄλλα ε?δαιμονέστε?οί εἰσιν οἱ ?κεῖ τῶν ?νθάδε, καὶ ἤδη τὸν λοιπὸν χ?όνον ἀθάνατοί εἰσιν, εἴπε? γε τὰ λεγόμενα ἀληθῆ.
P.A. 41c

is "te...kai" being used in a causal relationship here, i.e. "they are happier...because they are deathless"?

διὰ τοῦτο καὶ ?μὲ ο?δαμοῦ ἀπέτ?εψεν τὸ σημεῖον,
P.A. 41d

How is "kai" being used here?

Chris Weimer
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Post by Chris Weimer »

No, I see it more correlative - both...and..., or perhaps not only...but even...(if even what they are saying is true) <- translated not literally.

modus.irrealis
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Re: usages of "kai"

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Re: usages of "kai"

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vir litterarum
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Post by vir litterarum »

So in the ἄλλος τε καὶ construction, τε can come before ἄλλος with no change in meaning?

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Post by modus.irrealis »



vir litterarum
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Post by vir litterarum »

I agree. The "gar" is humorously giving the reason for why he would not be killed in the afterlife for his enquiries: because everyone is already deathless. It is not because everyone is happier, but because it is not possible.

Gonzalo
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Post by Gonzalo »

Hi,
I have another doubt related to the usage of καί.

"[...] ϰαὶ ο?ϰ ?θέλουσιν ἕπεισθαι ?ὰν μὴ Κῦ?ος α?τοῖς χ?ήματα διδῷ ὥσπε? καὶ π?ότε?ον." (Ex. 344 of J.W.W. Course)

I translate as follows: [...] and they don´t wish to follow if Cyrus previously does not give them the salary .
I cannot understand the position of και in ὥσπε? καὶ π?ότε?ον. The lexicon and Grammar which I use don´t explain this construction. Which is the explanation to ὥσπε? καὶ π?ότε?ον here?

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Post by annis »


William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;

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Post by Gonzalo »

Ok, Annis, thank you. I am not familiarized with the Liddell-Scott PDF format and because of this I forgot consulting it. I have read what you say in page 1772 of LSJ. It makes a lot of sense.
Thanks.

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