"epei" used concessively
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"epei" used concessively
?πεί, ὡς ?γᾦμαι, εἰ ἦν ὑμῖν νόμος, ὥσπε? καὶ ἄλλοις ἀνθ?ώποις, πε?ὶ θανάτου μὴ μίαν ἡμέ?αν μο?νον κ?ι?νειν ἀλλὰ πολλα?ς, ἐπει?σθητε ἀ?ν:
P.A. 37a-b
How is ?πεί being used here? I took it as being concessive, i.e. "Although, as I think, if you had a law...you should be persuaded."
P.A. 37a-b
How is ?πεί being used here? I took it as being concessive, i.e. "Although, as I think, if you had a law...you should be persuaded."
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Re: "epei" used concessively
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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- Textkit Zealot
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William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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- Textkit Zealot
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I still do not understand the sense of this passage. If Plato had said " we have only conversed for a short time because we do not have such a law" it would be perfectly clear;however, making this statement conditional, "since if..." seems to me to be grammatically incorrect and not to be comprehensible. How would you translate this in relationship to the previous sentence. I agree now "epei" must be causal; I just do not understand the relationship between this "sentence" and the previous one.
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William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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- Textkit Zealot
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- Textkit Zealot
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