ὁ?πως δὲ συ? τινα πει?θοις ἂν καὶ σμικ?ὸν νου̂ν ἐ?χοντα ἀνθ?ω?πων, ὡς οὐ του̂ αὐτου̂ ἐ?στιν καὶ δαιμο?νια καὶ θει̂α ἡγει̂σθαι, καὶ αὐ̂ του̂ αὐτου̂ μη?τε δαι?μονας μη?τε θεοὺς μη?τε ἡ??ωας, οὐδεμι?α μηχανη? ἐστιν.
P.A. 27e-28a
The "ou" after ὡς clearly negates the main clause, i.e. "there is no way how..." so why is it placed after ὡς?
Position of "ou"
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They are in separate finite clauses, so the rule does not apply.vir litterarum wrote:But when a compound negative follows a simple negative, doesn't the compound negative merely strengthen the first negative and hence is translated "any"? I thought that it was only when two simple negatives are used that they are both translated separately.