Am double checking because, per LSJ, ἀκούω is used "prop. c. acc. of thing heard, gen. of person from whom it is heard". Smyth qualifies this:
but I am not sure why this would apply to Plato's passage from which I cited:"1366. In the meaning heed, hearken, obey, verbs of hearing generally take the genitive: ἄκουε πάντων, ἐκλέγου δ᾽ ἃ συμφέρει listen to everything, but choose that which is profitable Men."
Thanks in advance for any suggestions.οὐδὲ χρήματα μὲν λαμβάνων διαλέγομαι μὴ λαμβάνων δὲ οὔ, ἀλλ’ ὁμοίως καὶ πλουσίῳ καὶ πένητι παρέχω ἐμαυτὸν ἐρωτᾶν, καὶ ἐάν τις βούληται ἀποκρινόμενος ἀκούειν ὧν ἂν λέγω