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What's the difference between ἐφανθην and ἐφανην?

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What's the difference between ἐφανθην and ἐφανην?

Postby Phoebus Apollo » Wed Dec 20, 2017 10:40 pm

They're both aorist passives, but I'm not sure what the difference is between them. By grammar book (Morwood) puts 'intr' (instransitive) next to ἐφανην but doesn't put anything next to ἐφανθην.

I was trying to write the sentence 'the sun appeared' in Greek, and North and Hillard says ἐφανη should be used; is it incorrect to use ἐφανθην?

The only thing I can think is that ἐφανθην means 'I have been revealed', whereas ἐφανην means 'I appeared'? But surely that makes them both intransitive? I'm struggling in general how to translate passive forms (such as the perfect middle/passive, aorist passive and future passive) of middle verbs...I assume you treat them like Latin deponent verbs, and translate them as active?
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Re: What's the difference between ἐφανθην and ἐφανην?

Postby Timothée » Wed Dec 20, 2017 11:43 pm

1st and 2nd passive aorists, respectively.
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Re: What's the difference between ἐφανθην and ἐφανην?

Postby Hylander » Thu Dec 21, 2017 11:59 pm

ἐφανθην means 'I have been revealed', whereas ἐφανην means 'I appeared'? But surely that makes them both intransitive?


No, it doesn't. "I have been revealed" is a true passive of a transitive verb. The grammatical subject is the object of the action. "I appeared" is intransitive.
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Re: What's the difference between ἐφανθην and ἐφανην?

Postby Phoebus Apollo » Sun Dec 24, 2017 5:19 pm

Hylander wrote:
ἐφανθην means 'I have been revealed', whereas ἐφανην means 'I appeared'? But surely that makes them both intransitive?


No, it doesn't. "I have been revealed" is a true passive of a transitive verb. The grammatical subject is the object of the action. "I appeared" is intransitive.

Thank you! That makes sense now
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