Textkit Logo


Here you can discuss all things Ancient Greek. Use this board to ask questions about grammar, discuss learning strategies, get help with a difficult passage of Greek, and more.

Re: Medea

Postby Hylander » Sat Nov 11, 2017 6:48 pm

Without necessarily ruling out your interpretation, she seems to have moved on from specifically sexual issues to more general concerns with καινὰ δ’ ἤθη καὶ νόμους. And, while I've seen χράομαι used of the male partner in sexual relations (wasn't this the verb used of Cyrus and the queen of Bithynia?), is it so used of the female partner? I don't know the answer to that question.

But it makes sense to read it in a less sexual way, too. Maybe, to "get along with" her bed-mate. A Greek woman's relationship with her husband will encompass more than just sex.

Perhaps E. intends it to be ambiguous or suggestive.
Textkit Zealot
Posts: 1113
Joined: Mon Aug 17, 2015 1:16 pm

Re: Medea

Postby jeidsath » Sat Nov 11, 2017 7:51 pm

If you're thinking of Cyrus and the queen of Cilicia, I think that the verb was συγγίγνεσθαι (but perhaps I'm misremembering). However, after having looked at all the references in the LSJ for χράω (C.IV.2), it does seem to always be the male parter (though sometimes with another male), and seems to mean "make sexual use of." This would sink my idea, I'm afraid.
Joel Eidsath -- jeidsath@gmail.com

μὴ δ’ οὕτως ἀγαθός περ ἐὼν θεοείκελ’ Ἀχιλλεῦ
κλέπτε νόῳ, ἐπεὶ οὐ παρελεύσεαι οὐδέ με πείσεις.
User avatar
Posts: 1988
Joined: Mon Dec 30, 2013 2:42 pm
Location: Γαλεήπολις, Οὐισκόνσιν


Return to Learning Greek

Who is online

Users browsing this forum: Bing [Bot] and 110 guests