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Medea

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Re: Medea

Postby Hylander » Sat Nov 11, 2017 6:48 pm

Without necessarily ruling out your interpretation, she seems to have moved on from specifically sexual issues to more general concerns with καινὰ δ’ ἤθη καὶ νόμους. And, while I've seen χράομαι used of the male partner in sexual relations (wasn't this the verb used of Cyrus and the queen of Bithynia?), is it so used of the female partner? I don't know the answer to that question.

But it makes sense to read it in a less sexual way, too. Maybe, to "get along with" her bed-mate. A Greek woman's relationship with her husband will encompass more than just sex.

Perhaps E. intends it to be ambiguous or suggestive.
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Re: Medea

Postby jeidsath » Sat Nov 11, 2017 7:51 pm

If you're thinking of Cyrus and the queen of Cilicia, I think that the verb was συγγίγνεσθαι (but perhaps I'm misremembering). However, after having looked at all the references in the LSJ for χράω (C.IV.2), it does seem to always be the male parter (though sometimes with another male), and seems to mean "make sexual use of." This would sink my idea, I'm afraid.
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