Euripides' IT, 85-86:
''σὺ δ᾽ εἶπας ἐλθεῖν Ταυρικῆς μ᾽ ὅρους χθονός,
ἔνθ᾽ Ἄρτεμίς σοι σύγγονος βωμοὺς ἔχοι'' (Orestes speaking just after he and Pylades reached the temple)
So, this might be an odd question, but for some reason, I can't understand the optative here. And why is it present tense?
GJC
Why an optative? (Eur. IT. 85-86)
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Why an optative? (Eur. IT. 85-86)
vincatur oportet aut vincat
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Re: Why an optative? (Eur. IT. 85-86)
This is the optative in a subordinate clause in indirect discourse after a verb in a historical tense.
Smyth 2619: http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/tex ... tion%3D151
On the tense, see Smyth 1862:
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/tex ... tion%3D123
Smyth 2619: http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/tex ... tion%3D151
On the tense, see Smyth 1862:
a. The present optative represents the imperfect as well as the present indicative.Optative (in indirect discourse).—When the optative in indirect discourse represents the indicative after a past tense of a verb of saying or thinking, each tense does denote time (as well as stage of action) relatively to that of the leading verb.
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/tex ... tion%3D123
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Re: Why an optative? (Eur. IT. 85-86)
Ah yes, of course. I just didn't see it, but you perfectly clear explanation solves the problem!
GJC
GJC
vincatur oportet aut vincat