Here you can discuss all things Ancient Greek. Use this board to ask questions about grammar, discuss learning strategies, get help with a difficult passage of Greek, and more.
Aristotle's Metaphysics 1031b9 sq. have both οὐθέν and οὐδέν. I was wondering where such variations are believed to have originated. (Are we to suppose that Aristotle used both, or is there no evidence either way?)
- Textkit Fan
- Posts: 226
- Joined: Wed Oct 13, 2010 6:50 pm
Return to Learning Greek
Who is online
Users browsing this forum: Dante, Paul Derouda and 87 guests